Fresher Interview Questions & Tips

Warm-Up Questions

• What made you apply for this position?

• How did you hear about this job openings?

• Briefly, would you summarize your work history & education for me?

Work History

• What special aspects of your work experience have prepared you for this job?

• Can you describe for me one or two of your most important accomplishments?

• How much supervision have you typically received in your previous job?

• Describe for me one or two of the biggest disappointments in your work history?

• Why are you leaving your present job? (or, Why did you leave your last job?)

• What is important to you in a company? What things do you look for in an organization?

Job Peformance

• Everyone has strengths & weaknesses as workers. What are your strong points for this job?

• What would you say are areas needing improvement?

• How did your supervisor on your most recent job evaluate your job performance? What were some of the good points & bad points of that rating?

• When you have been told , or discovered for yourself , a problem in performance, what have you typically done? Can you give me an example?

• Do you prefer working alone or in groups?

• What kind of people do you find it most difficult to work with? Why?

• Starting with your last job, tell me about any of your achievements that were recognized by your superiors.

• Can you give me an example of your ability to manage or supervise others?

• What are some things you would like to avoid in a job? Why?

• In your previous job what kind of pressures did you encounter?

• What would you say is the most important thing you are looking for in a job?

• What are some of the things on your job you feel you have done particularly well or in which you have achieved the greatest success? Why do you feel this way?

• What were some of the things about your last job that you found most difficult to do?

• What are some of the problems you encounter in doing your job? Which one frustrates you the most? What do you usually do about it?

• What are some things you particularly liked about your last job?

• Do you consider your progress on the job representative of your ability? Why?

• How do you feel about the way you & others in the department were managed by your supervisor?

• If I were to ask your present (most recent) about your ability as a____________________, what would he/she say?

EDUCATION

• What special aspects of your education or training have prepared you for this job?

• What courses in school have been of most help in doing your job?

CAREER- GOALS

• What is your long-term employment careerr or objective?

• What kind of job do you see yourself holding five years from now?

• What do you feel you need to develop in terms of skill & knowledge in order to be ready for that opportunity?

• Why might you be successful in such a job?

• How does this job fit in with your overall career goals?

• Who or what in your life would you say influenced you most with your career objectives?

• Can you pinpoint any specific things in your past experience that affected your present career objectives?

• What would you most like to accomplish if you had this job?

• What might make you leave this job?

SELF-ASSESSMENT

• What kind of things do you feel most confident in doing?

• Can you describe for me a difficult obstacle you have had to overcome? How did you handle it? How do you feel this experience affected your personality or ability?

• How would you describe yourself as a person?

• What do you think are the most important characteristics & abilities a person must possess to become a successful ( )? How do you rate yourself in these areas?

• Do you consider yourself a self-starter? If so, explain why ( and give examples)

• What do you consider to be your greatest achievements to date? Why?

• What things give you the greatest satisfaction at work?

• What things frustrate you the most? How do you usually cope with them?

CREATIVITY

• In your work experience, what have you done that you consider truly creative?

• Can you think of a problem you have encountered when the old solutions didn't work & when you came up with new solutions?

• Of your creative accomplishments big or small , at work or home, what gave you the most satisfaction?

• What kind of problems have people recently called on you to solve? Tell me what you have devised.

DECISIVENESS

• Do you consider yourself to be thoughtful, analytical or do you usually make up your mind fast? Give an example. (Watch time taken to respond)

• What was your most difficult decision in the last six months? What made it difficult?

• The last time you did not know what decision to make, what did you do?

• How do you go about making an important decision affecting your career?

• What was the last major problem that you were confronted with? What action did you take on it?

RANGE OF INTERESTS

• What organizations do you belong to?

• Tell me specifically what you do in the civic activities in which you participate. (Leading questions in selected areas. i.e. sports, economics, current events, finance.)

• How do you keep up with what's going on in your company / your industry/ your profession?

MOTIVATION

• What is your professional goal?

• Can you give me examples of experience on the job that you felt were satisfying?

• Do you have a long & short-term plan for your department? Is it realistic?

• Did you achieve it last year?

• Describe how you determine what constitutes top priorities in the performance of your job.

WORK STANDARDS

• What are your standards of success in your job?

• In your position, how would you define doing a good job ? On what basis was your definition determined?

• When judging the performance of your subordinate, what factors or characteristics are most important to you?

LEADERSHIP

• In your present job what approach do you take to get your people together to establish a common approach to a problem?

• What approach do you take in getting your people to accept your ideas or department goals?

• What specifically do you do to set an example for your employer?

• How frequently do you meet with your immediate subordinates as a group?

• What sort of leader do your people feel you are? Are you satisfied?

• How do you get people who do not want to work together to establish a common approach to a problem?

• If you do not have much time & they hold seriously differing views, what would be your approach?

• How would you describe your basic leadership style? Give specific examples of how you practice this?

• Do you feel you work more effectively on a one to one basis or in a group situation?

• Have you ever led a task force or committee or any group who doesn't report to you, but from whom you have to get work? How did you do it? What were the satisfactions & disappointments? How would you handle the job differently?

ORAL PRESENTATION SKILLS

• Have you ever done any public or group speaking? Recently? Why? How did it go?

• Have you made any individual presentations recently? How did you prepare?

WRITTEN COMMUNICATION SKILLS

• Would you rather write a report or give a verbal report? Why?

• What kind of writing have you done? For a group? For an individual?

• What is the extent of your participation in major reports that have to be written?

FLEXIBILITY

• What was the most important idea or suggestion you received recently from your employees? What happened as a result?

• What do you think about the continuous changes in company operating policies & procedures?

• How effective has your company been in adapting its policies to fit a changing environment?

• What was the most significant change made in your company in the last six months which directly affected you, & how successfully do you think you implemented this change?

STRESS TOLERANCE

• Do you feel pressure in your job? Tell me about it.

• What has been the highest pressure situation you have been under in recent years? How did you cope with it?

STABILITY & MATURITY

• Describe your most significant success & failure in the last two years.

• What do you like to do best?

• What do you like to do least?

• What in your last review did your supervisor suggest needed improvement?

• What have you done about it?

INTEREST IN SELF DEVELOPMENT

• What has been the most important person or event in your own self development?

• How much of your education did you earn?

• What kind of books & other publications do you read?

• Have you taken a management development course?

How are you helping your subordinates develop themselves?

Manual Testing Interview Questions

What makes a good test engineer?

A good test engineer has a 'test to break' attitude, an ability to take the point of view of the customer, a strong desire for quality, and an attention to detail. Tact and diplomacy are useful in maintaining a cooperative relationship with developers, and an ability to communicate with both technical (developers) and non-technical (customers, management) people is useful. Previous software development experience can be helpful as it provides a deeper understanding of the software development process, gives the tester an appreciation for the developers' point of view, and reduce the learning curve in automated test tool programming. Judgement skills are needed to assess high-risk areas of an application on which to focus testing efforts when time is limited.

What makes a good Software QA engineer?

The same qualities a good tester has are useful for a QA engineer. Additionally, they must be able to understand the entire software development process and how it can fit into the business approach and goals of the organization. Communication skills and the ability to understand various sides of issues are important. In organizations in the early stages of implementing QA processes, patience and diplomacy are especially needed. An ability to find problems as well as to see 'what's missing' is important for inspections and reviews.

What makes a good QA or Test manager?

A good QA, test, or QA/Test(combined) manager should:
• be familiar with the software development process
• be able to maintain enthusiasm of their team and promote a positive atmosphere, despite
• what is a somewhat 'negative' process (e.g., looking for or preventing problems)
• be able to promote teamwork to increase productivity
• be able to promote cooperation between software, test, and QA engineers
• have the diplomatic skills needed to promote improvements in QA processes
• have the ability to withstand pressures and say 'no' to other managers when quality is insufficient or QA processes are not being adhered to
• have people judgement skills for hiring and keeping skilled personnel
• be able to communicate with technical and non-technical people, engineers, managers, and customers.
• be able to run meetings and keep them focused

What's the role of documentation in QA?

Critical. (Note that documentation can be electronic, not necessarily paper.) QA practices should be documented such that they are repeatable. Specifications, designs, business rules, inspection reports, configurations, code changes, test plans, test cases, bug reports, user manuals, etc. should all be documented. There should ideally be a system for easily finding and obtaining documents and determining what documentation will have a particular piece of information. Change management for documentation should be used if possible.

What's the big deal about 'requirements'?

One of the most reliable methods of insuring problems, or failure, in a complex software project is to have poorly documented requirements specifications. Requirements are the details describing an application's externally-perceived functionality and properties. Requirements should be clear, complete, reasonably detailed, cohesive, attainable, and testable. A non-testable requirement would be, for example, 'user-friendly' (too subjective). A testable requirement would be something like 'the user must enter their previously-assigned password to access the application'. Determining and organizing requirements details in a useful and efficient way can be a difficult effort; different methods are available depending on the particular project. Many books are available that describe various approaches to this task. (See the Bookstore section's 'Software Requirements Engineering' category for books on Software Requirements.)
Care should be taken to involve ALL of a project's significant 'customers' in the requirements process. 'Customers' could be in-house personnel or out, and could include end-users, customer acceptance testers, customer contract officers, customer management, future software maintenance engineers, salespeople, etc. Anyone who could later derail the project if their expectations aren't met should be included if possible.
Organizations vary considerably in their handling of requirements specifications. Ideally, the requirements are spelled out in a document with statements such as 'The product shall.....'. 'Design' specifications should not be confused with 'requirements'; design specifications should be traceable back to the requirements.

In some organizations requirements may end up in high level project plans, functional specification documents, in design documents, or in other documents at various levels of detail. No matter what they are called, some type of documentation with detailed requirements will be needed by testers in order to properly plan and execute tests. Without such documentation, there will be no clear-cut way to determine if a software application is performing correctly.
'Agile' methods such as XP use methods requiring close interaction and cooperation between programmers and customers/end-users to iteratively develop requirements. The programmer uses 'Test first' development to first create automated unit testing code, which essentially embodies the requirements.

What steps are needed to develop and run software tests?

The following are some of the steps to consider:
• Obtain requirements, functional design, and internal design specifications and other necessary documents
• Obtain budget and schedule requirements
• Determine project-related personnel and their responsibilities, reporting requirements, required standards and processes (such as release processes, change processes, etc.)
• Identify application's higher-risk aspects, set priorities, and determine scope and limitations of tests
• Determine test approaches and methods - unit, integration, functional, system, load, usability tests, etc.
• Determine test environment requirements (hardware, software, communications, etc.)
• Determine testware requirements (record/playback tools, coverage analyzers, test tracking, problem/bug tracking, etc.)
• Determine test input data requirements
• Identify tasks, those responsible for tasks, and labor requirements
• Set schedule estimates, timelines, milestones
• Determine input equivalence classes, boundary value analyses, error classes
• Prepare test plan document and have needed reviews/approvals
• Write test cases
• Have needed reviews/inspections/approvals of test cases
• Prepare test environment and testware, obtain needed user manuals/reference documents/configuration guides/installation guides, set up test tracking processes, set up logging and archiving processes, set up or obtain test input data
• Obtain and install software releases
• Perform tests
• Evaluate and report results
• Track problems/bugs and fixes
• Retest as needed
• Maintain and update test plans, test cases, test environment, and testware through life cycle

What's a 'test plan'?

A software project test plan is a document that describes the objectives, scope, approach, and focus of a software testing effort. The process of preparing a test plan is a useful way to think through the efforts needed to validate the acceptability of a software product. The completed document will help people outside the test group understand the 'why' and 'how' of product validation. It should be thorough enough to be useful but not so thorough that no one outside the test group will read it. The following are some of the items that might be included in a test plan, depending on the particular project:
• Title
• Identification of software including version/release numbers
• Revision history of document including authors, dates, approvals
• Table of Contents
• Purpose of document, intended audience
• Objective of testing effort
• Software product overview
• Relevant related document list, such as requirements, design documents, other test plans, etc.
• Relevant standards or legal requirements
• Traceability requirements
• Relevant naming conventions and identifier conventions
• Overall software project organization and personnel/contact-info/responsibilties
• Test organization and personnel/contact-info/responsibilities
• Assumptions and dependencies
• Project risk analysis
• Testing priorities and focus
• Scope and limitations of testing
• Test outline - a decomposition of the test approach by test type, feature, functionality, process, system, module, etc. as applicable
• Outline of data input equivalence classes, boundary value analysis, error classes
• Test environment - hardware, operating systems, other required software, data configurations, interfaces to other systems
• Test environment validity analysis - differences between the test and production systems and their impact on test validity.
• Test environment setup and configuration issues
• Software migration processes
• Software CM processes
• Test data setup requirements
• Database setup requirements
• Outline of system-logging/error-logging/other capabilities, and tools such as screen capture software, that will be used to help describe and report bugs
• Discussion of any specialized software or hardware tools that will be used by testers to help track the cause or source of bugs
• Test automation - justification and overview
• Test tools to be used, including versions, patches, etc.
• Test script/test code maintenance processes and version control
• Problem tracking and resolution - tools and processes
• Project test metrics to be used
• Reporting requirements and testing deliverables
• Software entrance and exit criteria
• Initial sanity testing period and criteria
• Test suspension and restart criteria
• Personnel allocation
• Personnel pre-training needs
• Test site/location
• Outside test organizations to be utilized and their purpose, responsibilties, deliverables, contact persons, and coordination issues
• Relevant proprietary, classified, security, and licensing issues.
• Open issues
• Appendix - glossary, acronyms, etc.
(See the Bookstore section's 'Software Testing' and 'Software QA' categories for useful books with more information.)

What's a 'test case'?

• A test case is a document that describes an input, action, or event and an expected response, to determine if a feature of an application is working correctly. A test case should contain particulars such as test case identifier, test case name, objective, test conditions/setup, input data requirements, steps, and expected results.
• Note that the process of developing test cases can help find problems in the requirements or design of an application, since it requires completely thinking through the operation of the application. For this reason, it's useful to prepare test cases early in the development cycle if possible.

What should be done after a bug is found?

The bug needs to be communicated and assigned to developers that can fix it. After the problem is resolved, fixes should be re-tested, and determinations made regarding requirements for regression testing to check that fixes didn't create problems elsewhere. If a problem-tracking system is in place, it should encapsulate these processes. A variety of commercial problem-tracking/management software tools are available (see the 'Tools' section for web resources with listings of such tools). The following are items to consider in the tracking process:
• Complete information such that developers can understand the bug, get an idea of it's severity, and reproduce it if necessary.
• Bug identifier (number, ID, etc.)
• Current bug status (e.g., 'Released for Retest', 'New', etc.)
• The application name or identifier and version
• The function, module, feature, object, screen, etc. where the bug occurred
• Environment specifics, system, platform, relevant hardware specifics
• Test case name/number/identifier
• One-line bug description
• Full bug description
• Description of steps needed to reproduce the bug if not covered by a test case or if the developer doesn't have easy access to the test case/test script/test tool
• Names and/or descriptions of file/data/messages/etc. used in test
• File excerpts/error messages/log file excerpts/screen shots/test tool logs that would be helpful in finding the cause of the problem
• Severity estimate (a 5-level range such as 1-5 or 'critical'-to-'low' is common)
• Was the bug reproducible?
• Tester name
• Test date
• Bug reporting date
• Name of developer/group/organization the problem is assigned to
• Description of problem cause
• Description of fix
• Code section/file/module/class/method that was fixed
• Date of fix
• Application version that contains the fix
• Tester responsible for retest
• Retest date
• Retest results
• Regression testing requirements
• Tester responsible for regression tests
• Regression testing results
A reporting or tracking process should enable notification of appropriate personnel at various stages. For instance, testers need to know when retesting is needed, developers need to know when bugs are found and how to get the needed information, and reporting/summary capabilities are needed for managers.

What is 'configuration management'?

Configuration management covers the processes used to control, coordinate, and track: code, requirements, documentation, problems, change requests, designs, tools/compilers/libraries/patches, changes made to them, and who makes the changes. (See the 'Tools' section for web resources with listings of configuration management tools. Also see the Bookstore section's 'Configuration Management' category for useful books with more information.)

What if the software is so buggy it can't really be tested at all?

The best bet in this situation is for the testers to go through the process of reporting whatever bugs or blocking-type problems initially show up, with the focus being on critical bugs. Since this type of problem can severely affect schedules, and indicates deeper problems in the software development process (such as insufficient unit testing or insufficient integration testing, poor design, improper build or release procedures, etc.) managers should be notified, and provided with some documentation as evidence of the problem.

How can it be known when to stop testing?

This can be difficult to determine. Many modern software applications are so complex, and run in such an interdependent environment, that complete testing can never be done. Common factors in deciding when to stop are:
• Deadlines (release deadlines, testing deadlines, etc.)
• Test cases completed with certain percentage passed
• Test budget depleted
• Coverage of code/functionality/requirements reaches a specified point
• Bug rate falls below a certain level
• Beta or alpha testing period ends

What if there isn't enough time for thorough testing?

Use risk analysis to determine where testing should be focused.
Since it's rarely possible to test every possible aspect of an application, every possible combination of events, every dependency, or everything that could go wrong, risk analysis is appropriate to most software development projects. This requires judgement skills, common sense, and experience. (If warranted, formal methods are also available.) Considerations can include:
• Which functionality is most important to the project's intended purpose?
• Which functionality is most visible to the user?
• Which functionality has the largest safety impact?
• Which functionality has the largest financial impact on users?
• Which aspects of the application are most important to the customer?
• Which aspects of the application can be tested early in the development cycle?
• Which parts of the code are most complex, and thus most subject to errors?
• Which parts of the application were developed in rush or panic mode?
• Which aspects of similar/related previous projects caused problems?
• Which aspects of similar/related previous projects had large maintenance expenses?
• Which parts of the requirements and design are unclear or poorly thought out?
• What do the developers think are the highest-risk aspects of the application?
• What kinds of problems would cause the worst publicity?
• What kinds of problems would cause the most customer service complaints?
• What kinds of tests could easily cover multiple functionalities?
• Which tests will have the best high-risk-coverage to time-required ratio?

What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing?

Consider the impact of project errors, not the size of the project. However, if extensive testing is still not justified, risk analysis is again needed and the same considerations as described previously in 'What if there isn't enough time for thorough testing?' apply. The tester might then do ad hoc testing, or write up a limited test plan based on the risk analysis.

What can be done if requirements are changing continuously?

A common problem and a major headache.
• Work with the project's stakeholders early on to understand how requirements might change so that alternate test plans and strategies can be worked out in advance, if possible.
• It's helpful if the application's initial design allows for some adaptability so that later changes do not require redoing the application from scratch.
• If the code is well-commented and well-documented this makes changes easier for the developers.
• Use rapid prototyping whenever possible to help customers feel sure of their requirements and minimize changes.
• The project's initial schedule should allow for some extra time commensurate with the possibility of changes.
• Try to move new requirements to a 'Phase 2' version of an application, while using the original requirements for the 'Phase 1' version.
• Negotiate to allow only easily-implemented new requirements into the project, while moving more difficult new requirements into future versions of the application.
• Be sure that customers and management understand the scheduling impacts, inherent risks, and costs of significant requirements changes. Then let management or the customers (not the developers or testers) decide if the changes are warranted - after all, that's their job.
• Balance the effort put into setting up automated testing with the expected effort required to re-do them to deal with changes.
• Try to design some flexibility into automated test scripts.
• Focus initial automated testing on application aspects that are most likely to remain unchanged.
• Devote appropriate effort to risk analysis of changes to minimize regression testing needs.
• Design some flexibility into test cases (this is not easily done; the best bet might be to minimize the detail in the test cases, or set up only higher-level generic-type test plans)
• Focus less on detailed test plans and test cases and more on ad hoc testing (with an understanding of the added risk that this entails).

What if the application has functionality that wasn't in the requirements?

It may take serious effort to determine if an application has significant unexpected or hidden functionality, and it would indicate deeper problems in the software development process. If the functionality isn't necessary to the purpose of the application, it should be removed, as it may have unknown impacts or dependencies that were not taken into account by the designer or the customer. If not removed, design information will be needed to determine added testing needs or regression testing needs. Management should be made aware of any significant added risks as a result of the unexpected functionality. If the functionality only effects areas such as minor improvements in the user interface, for example, it may not be a significant risk.

How can Software QA processes be implemented without stifling productivity?

By implementing QA processes slowly over time, using consensus to reach agreement on processes, and adjusting and experimenting as an organization grows and matures, productivity will be improved instead of stifled. Problem prevention will lessen the need for problem detection, panics and burn-out will decrease, and there will be improved focus and less wasted effort. At the same time, attempts should be made to keep processes simple and efficient, minimize paperwork, promote computer-based processes and automated tracking and reporting, minimize time required in meetings, and promote training as part of the QA process. However, no one - especially talented technical types - likes rules or bureacracy, and in the short run things may slow down a bit. A typical scenario would be that more days of planning and development will be needed, but less time will be required for late-night bug-fixing and calming of irate customers.

What if an organization is growing so fast that fixed QA processes are impossible?

This is a common problem in the software industry, especially in new technology areas. There is no easy solution in this situation, other than:
• Hire good people
• Management should 'ruthlessly prioritize' quality issues and maintain focus on the customer
• Everyone in the organization should be clear on what 'quality' means to the customer

How does a client/server environment affect testing?

Client/server applications can be quite complex due to the multiple dependencies among clients, data communications, hardware, and servers. Thus testing requirements can be extensive. When time is limited (as it usually is) the focus should be on integration and system testing. Additionally, load/stress/performance testing may be useful in determining client/server application limitations and capabilities. There are commercial tools to assist with such testing. (See the 'Tools' section for web resources with listings that include these kinds of test tools.)

How can World Wide Web sites be tested?

Web sites are essentially client/server applications - with web servers and 'browser' clients. Consideration should be given to the interactions between html pages, TCP/IP communications, Internet connections, firewalls, applications that run in web pages (such as applets, javascript, plug-in applications), and applications that run on the server side (such as cgi scripts, database interfaces, logging applications, dynamic page generators, asp, etc.). Additionally, there are a wide variety of servers and browsers, various versions of each, small but sometimes significant differences between them, variations in connection speeds, rapidly changing technologies, and multiple standards and protocols. The end result is that testing for web sites can become a major ongoing effort. Other considerations might include:
• What are the expected loads on the server (e.g., number of hits per unit time?), and what kind of performance is required under such loads (such as web server response time, database query response times). What kinds of tools will be needed for performance testing (such as web load testing tools, other tools already in house that can be adapted, web robot downloading tools, etc.)?
• Who is the target audience? What kind of browsers will they be using? What kind of connection speeds will they by using? Are they intra- organization (thus with likely high connection speeds and similar browsers) or Internet-wide (thus with a wide variety of connection speeds and browser types)?
• What kind of performance is expected on the client side (e.g., how fast should pages appear, how fast should animations, applets, etc. load and run)?
• Will down time for server and content maintenance/upgrades be allowed? how much?
• What kinds of security (firewalls, encryptions, passwords, etc.) will be required and what is it expected to do? How can it be tested?
• How reliable are the site's Internet connections required to be? And how does that affect backup system or redundant connection requirements and testing?
• What processes will be required to manage updates to the web site's content, and what are the requirements for maintaining, tracking, and controlling page content, graphics, links, etc.?
• Which HTML specification will be adhered to? How strictly? What variations will be allowed for targeted browsers?
• Will there be any standards or requirements for page appearance and/or graphics throughout a site or parts of a site??
• How will internal and external links be validated and updated? how often?
• Can testing be done on the production system, or will a separate test system be required? How are browser caching, variations in browser option settings, dial-up connection variabilities, and real-world internet 'traffic congestion' problems to be accounted for in testing?
• How extensive or customized are the server logging and reporting requirements; are they considered an integral part of the system and do they require testing?
• How are cgi programs, applets, javascripts, ActiveX components, etc. to be maintained, tracked, controlled, and tested?
Some sources of site security information include the Usenet newsgroup 'comp.security.announce' and links concerning web site security in the 'Other Resources' section.
Some usability guidelines to consider - these are subjective and may or may not apply to a given situation (Note: more information on usability testing issues can be found in articles about web site usability in the 'Other Resources' section):
• Pages should be 3-5 screens max unless content is tightly focused on a single topic. If larger, provide internal links within the page.
• The page layouts and design elements should be consistent throughout a site, so that it's clear to the user that they're still within a site.
• Pages should be as browser-independent as possible, or pages should be provided or generated based on the browser-type.
• All pages should have links external to the page; there should be no dead-end pages.
• The page owner, revision date, and a link to a contact person or organization should be included on each page.
Many new web site test tools have appeared in the recent years and more than 280 of them are listed in the 'Web Test Tools' section.

Group Discussion Topics For Freshers

Hot Topics:

1.How to deal with international terrorism.
2.Should we pursue our policy of dialogue with Pakistan?
3.Is peace and non-violence outdated concepts?

Current Topics:

1.A Unipolar World spells disaster for underdeveloped countries like India.
2.Is Globalisation Really Necessary?
3.What shall we do about our ever-increasing Population?
4.Corruption is the price we pay for Democracy.
5.Foreign Television Channels are destroying our culture.
6.What India needs is a Dictatorship.
7.With media publishing and telecasting trivia, censorship is the need of the hour.
8.Kaun Banega Krorepati is less about knowledge but more about money and personality.
9.Beauty contests degrade womanhood
10.The rise of regional blocs threatens independent nations like India
11.Six billion and one bronze!
12.Is dependence on computers a good thing?
13.Should the public sector be privatised?
14.China and India are similar nations with contrasting ways
15.Is India a Soft Nation?
16.Value based politics is the need of the hour
17.Religion should not be mixed with politics
18.How to deal with high oil prices
19.Our cricketers are not to blame for match fixing
20.Why cant we be world players in industry as we are in software?
21.Multinational corporations: Are they devils in disguise?
22.Should there be limits on artistic freedom (the controversy on Fire).
23.Should there be private universities?
24.Does banning fashion shows and New Year parties save our culture?

Social Topics:

1.Are Big Dams Necessary?
2.Films are corrupting the Indian Youth
3.A Gandhian State selling liquor is an anomaly
4.Bride burning and dowry may look bad, but are an integral part of India.
5.Our Culture is Decaying
6.We are not serious about saving Wildlife/Environment
7.The education system needs serious reforms
8.The impact of MTV on our psyche
9.Showing Violence and Crimes should not be allowed in films and on television.
10.Let us legalise gambling

Management Topics:

1.Is management an art or a science?
2.The Rush for MBA is really a rush for big money
3.Ethics in Business are just a passing fashion
4.The objective of Management is to maximise profits
5.Do professional managers have a chance in our family run businesses?
6.The Internet is an exercise in hype
7.Is an MBA necessary to succeed in life?
8.Family owned business vs professionally run businesses
9.Smaller businesses and start-ups have more scope for professional growth.
10.Dot com or doubt com?

Creative Topics:

1.The Wheel is Turning Round and Round
2.If I was the Finance Minister/Prime Minister
3.There is no right way to do a wrong thing
4.Group Task: How can we have Mount Everest in India?
5.Do Beauty and Brains Go Together?
6.When I woke up in the morning I saw…
7.A ship docked in harbour cannot face the storms
8.Up the Down Staircase
9.Just as we have smoke free zones, we should have child free zones
10.Marriage is a social trap

SOCIAL TOPICS:

1. The Internet chains have come on the wings of science and
technology but are no less restrictive for all that.
2. Secularism has become a tool to justify the wrongs done by the minorities.
3. Media is a mixed blessing/How ethical is media?
4. To fight AIDs, stop being coy about sex education.
5. What should India strive for- Westernization or modernization?

ECONOMIC TOPICS:

1. Developing countries need trade, not aid.
2. Why do we lag behind China?
3. Capitalism is a very flawed system but the others are so much worse.
4. Flexibility of labour laws is the key to attracting more Foreign Direct Investment.
5. Is the business of business only business?

POLITICAL TOPICS:

1. Reserving seats for women in Panchayat has not only been a farce but has distracted from developing a more genuine voice of women.
2. Have the nuclear tests of 1998 benefited or harmed India?
3. Voters, not, political parties are responsible for the criminalisation of politics.
4. The voters are required to be well informed and educated about their candidates so that they can elect the right aspirant by their own assessment.
5. India should go for the presidential form of democracy.

ECONOMIC TOPICS:

1. In our economic matters, there is an excessive tendency towards the thinking rather than doing.
2. Every cloud has a silver lining
3. Can the economy achieve an 8 percent growth rate?.
4. Is disinvestment really that good for India or is a rethink in order ?
5. Are co-operatives relevant in today's globalised environment?.
6. Foreign aid is a dangerous drug that can stimulate in small doses but become fatally addictive in larger doses.
7. Modern day sport in industrialised society is an industry, as anything else.
8. Government should clean its own hands before pointing finger at the private sector for corruption.
9. Is the NPA ordinance too harsh?
10. Reforms have to grow up.
11. The future lies with glocalisation .
12. Is the consumer really the king in India?.
13. Globalisation versus nationalism
14. Conditional access system for cable TV watchers: boon or bane?
15. If India is poorly governed, the reason is that we have designed our system of governance for protecting, if not encouraging, corruption?
16. Commercialisation of health care : Good or Bad ?
17. For globalisation to succeed in India people must be able to see what is in it for them
18. Is the US economy headed the Japanese economy way?
19. Economic freedom not old fashioned theories of development will lead to growth and prosperity
20. Markets left to themselves encourage greed.
21. For globalisation to succeed in India people must be able to see what is in it for them
22. Should businessmen run the finance ministry
23. Should important services like transport be left to market forces?.
24. Is there any point in having a business strategy when the world changes from month to month?
25. Is the patents bill good for India? .
26. Is the business of business only business?.
27. Globalisation is good for developing countries
28. Public sector being a guarantor of job security is a myth.
29. Is industryless growth here to stay ?
30. Capitalism is a very flawed system but the others are so much worse ?
31. How can business get rid of the bad name that it has earned?
32. Government pumping money into the economy is not the solution for our economic problems
33. Business ethics are no longer a luxury for corporates but a necessity?
34. How should privatisation proceeds be utilised ?
35. Is the budgeting exercise of any use?
36. Should agricultural subsidies be stopped ?
37. Will Mumbai's film industry ever evolve into a truly modern corporatised one?
38. Will market reforms enrich rich states further, while poorer ones lag further?.
39. Why do we lag behind China ?
40. Who says MNCs are superior to Indian companies ?.
41. Why not use a brand index to measure national prosperity?.
42. What we need to reduce scams is better regulatory bodies.
43. War rhetoric is misplaced in a country like India which is trying to globalise its economy.
44. Trade can help the poor ?
45. The power ministry should cut off supplies to all the defaulting SEBs.
46. Steal a few lakhs and you're a criminal. Steal a few hundred crores and you become an industrialist.
47. Should PSUs be divested through strategic sale or public offer?
48. The state is above the law?

Management Education Topics

1. Managerial skills learnt in the classroom can never match those learnt from experience
2. Democracy is hampering India progress
3. MBA in India is highly overrated.
4. Religion is a private affair and should be of no concern for the state
5. Decreasing defense expenditure and increasing social expenditure is the need of the hour

General Technical Interview Questions

1. A 2MB PCM(pulse code modulation) has

a) 32 channels
b) 30 voice channels & 1 signalling channel.
c) 31 voice channels & 1 signalling channel.
d) 32 channels out of which 30 voice channels, 1 signalling channel, & 1 Synchronizatio channel.

Ans: (c)

2. Time taken for 1 satellite hop in voice communication is

a) 1/2 second
b) 1 seconds
c) 4 seconds
d) 2 seconds

Ans: (a)

3. Max number of satellite hops allowed in voice communication is :

a) only one
b) more han one
c) two hops
d) four hops

Ans: (c)

4. What is the max. decimal number that can be accomodated in a byte.

a) 128
b) 256
c) 255
d) 512

Ans: (c)

5. Conditional results after execution of an instruction in a micro processor is stored in

a) register
b) accumulator
c) flag register
d) flag register part of PSW(Program Status Word)

Ans: (d)

6. Frequency at which VOICE is sampled is

a) 4 Khz
b) 8 Khz
c) 16 Khz
d) 64 Khz

Ans: (a)

7. Line of Sight is

a) Straight Line
b) Parabolic
c) Tx & Rx should be visible to each other
d) none

Ans: (c)

8. Purpose of PC(Program Counter) in a MicroProcessor is

a) To store address of TOS(Top Of Stack)
b) To store address of next instruction to be executed.
c) count the number of instructions.
d) to store base address of the stack.

Ans: (b)

9. What action is taken when the processor under execution is interrupted by a non-maskable interrupt?

a) Processor serves the interrupt request after completing the execution of the current instruction.
b) Processor serves the interupt request after completing the current task.
c) Processor serves the interupt request immediately.
d) Processor serving the interrupt request depends upon the priority of the current task under execution.

Ans: (a)

10. The status of the Kernel is

a) task
b) process
c) not defined.
d) none of the above.

Ans: (b)




11. To send a data packet using datagram , connection will be established

a) before data transmission.
b) connection is not established before data transmission.
c) no connection is required.
d) none of the above.

Ans: (c)


12. Word allignment is

a) alligning the address to the next word boundary of the machine.
b) alligning to even boundary.
c) alligning to word boundary.
d) none of the above.

Ans: (a)

13 When a 'C' function call is made, the order in which parameters passed to the function are pushed into the stack is

a) left to right
b) right to left
c) bigger variables are moved first than the smaller variales.
d) smaller variables are moved first than the bigger ones.
e) none of the above.

Ans: (b)

14 What is the type of signalling used between two exchanges?

a) inband
b) common channel signalling
c) any of the above
d) none of the above.

Ans: (a)

15 Buffering is

a) the process of temporarily storing the data to allow for small variation in device speeds
b) a method to reduce cross talks
c) storage of data within transmitting medium until the receiver is ready to receive.
d) a method to reduce routing overhead.

Ans: (a)


16. Memory allocation of variables declared in a program is

a) allocated in RAM.
b) allocated in ROM.
c) allocated on stack.
d) assigned to registers.

Ans: (c)


17. A software that allows a personal computer to pretend as a computer terminal is

a) terminal adapter
b) bulletin board
c) modem
d) terminal emulation

Ans: (d)

18. Find the output of the following program

int *p,*q;
p=(int *)1000;
q=(int *)2000;
printf("%d",(q-p));

Ans: 500


19. Which addressing mode is used in the following statements:

(a) MVI B,55
(b) MOV B,A
(c) MOV M,A

Ans. (a) Immediate addressing mode.
(b) Register Addressing Mode
(c) Direct addressing mode


20. RS-232C standard is used in _____________.

Ans. Serial I/O








21. Memory. Management in Operating Systems is done by

a) Memory Management Unit
b) Memory management software of the Operating System
c) Kernel

Ans: (b)


22. What is done for a Push opertion?

Ans: SP is decremented and then the value is stored.

23. Binary equivalent of 52

Ans. 110100


24. Hexadecimal equivalent of 3452

Ans. 72A


25. Explain Just In Time Concept ?

Ans. Elimination of waste by purchasing manufacturing exactly when needed


26. A good way of unit testing s/w program is

Ans. User test


27. OOT uses

Ans. Encapsulated of detect methods


28.EDI useful in

Ans. Electronic Transmission


29. MRPII different from MRP

Ans. Modular version of man redundant initials


30. Hard disk time for R/W head to move to correct sector

Ans. Latency Time


31. The percentage of times a page number bound in associate register is called

Ans. Bit ratio


32. Expand MODEM

Ans. Modulator and Demodulator


33. RDBMS file system can be defined as

Ans. Interrelated


34. Super Key is

Ans. Primary key and Attribute


35. Windows 95 supports

(a) Multiuser
(b) n tasks
(c) Both
(d) None

Ans. (a)


36.In the command scanf, h is used for

Ans. Short int


37.A process is defined as

Ans. Program in execution


38.A thread is

Ans. Detachable unit of executable code)


39.What is the advantage of Win NT over Win 95

Ans. Robust and secure





40.How is memory management done in Win95

Ans. Through paging and segmentation


41.What is meant by polymorphism

Ans. Redfinition of a base class method in a derived class


42.What is the essential feature of inheritance

Ans. All properties of existing class are derived


43.What does the protocol FTP do

Ans. Transfer a file b/w stations with user authentification


44.In the transport layer ,TCP is what type of protocol

Ans. Connection oriented


45.Why is a gateway used

Ans. To connect incompatible networks


46.How is linked list implemented

Ans. By referential structures


47.What method is used in Win95 in multitasking

Ans. Non preemptive check


48.What is a semaphore

Ans. A method synchronization of multiple processes


49.What is the precedence order from high to low ,of the symbols ( ) ++ /

Ans.( ) , ++, /





50.Preorder of A*(B+C)/D-G

Ans.*+ABC/-DG

51.What is the efficiency of merge sort

Ans. O(n log n)


52.In which layer are routers used

Ans.In network layer


53.Which of the following sorting algorithem has average sorting behavior --
Bubble sort,merge sort,heap sort,exchange sort

Ans. Heap sort


54.In binary search tree which traversal is used for getting ascending order values--Inorder ,post order,preorder

Ans.Inorder


55.What are device drivers used for

Ans.To provide software for enabling the hardware


56.What is fork command in unix

Ans. System call used to create process


57.What is make command in unix

Ans. Used forcreation of more than one file


58.In unix .profile contains

Ans. Start up program


59.In unix 'ls 'stores contents in

Ans.inode block


60. Which of the following involves context switch,

(a) system call
(b) priviliged instruction
(c) floating poitnt exception
(d) all the above
(e) none of the above

Ans: (a)


61. In OST, terminal emulation is done in

(a) sessions layer
(b) application layer
(c) presentation layer
(d) transport layer

Ans: (b)

62. For 1 MB memory, the number of address lines required,

(a)11
(b)16
(c)22
(d) 24

Ans. (b)

63. Semaphore is used for

(a) synchronization
(b) dead-lock avoidence
(c) box
(d) none

Ans. (a)

64. Which holds true for the following statement

class c: public A, public B

a) 2 member in class A, B should not have same name
b) 2 member in class A, C should not have same name
c) both
d) none

Ans. (a)

65.Preproconia.. does not do which one of the following

(a) macro
(b) conditional compliclation
(c) in type checking
(d) including load file

Ans. (c)


66. Piggy backing is a technique for

a) Flow control
b) Sequence
c) Acknowledgement
d) retransmition

Ans. (c)




67. Which is not a memory management scheme?

a) buddy system
b) swapping
c) monitors
d) paging

Ans : c

68. There was a circuit given using three nand gates with two inputs and one output.
Find the output.

a) OR
b) AND
c) XOR
d) NOT

Ans. (a)




69.Iintegrated check value(ICV) are used as:

Ans. The client computes the ICV and then compares it with the senders value.

70. When applets are downloaded from web sites , a byte verifier performs _________?

Ans. Status check.




71. An IP/IPX packet received by a computer using... having IP/IPX both how the packet is handled.

Ans. Read the, field in the packet header with to send IP or IPX protocol.

72. The UNIX shell ....

a) does not come with the rest of the system
b) forms the interface between the user and the kernal
c) does not give any scope for programming
d) deos not allow calling one program from with in another
e) all of the above

Ans. (b)

73. In UNIX a files i-node ......?

Ans. Is a data structure that defines all specifications of a file like the file size,
number of lines to a file, permissions etc.

74. The very first process created by the kernal that runs till the kernal process is halts is

a) init
b) getty
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of these

Ans. (a)

75. In the process table entry for the kernel process, the process id value is

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 255
(e) it does not have a process table entry

Ans. (a)


76. Which of the following API is used to hide a window

a) ShowWindow
b) EnableWindow
c) MoveWindow
d) SetWindowPlacement
e) None of the above

Ans. (a)

77. Which function is the entry point for a DLL in MS Windows 3.1

a) Main
b) Winmain
c) Dllmain
d) Libmain
e) None

Ans. (b)

78. The standard source for standard input, standard output and standard error is

a) the terminal
b) /dev/null
c) /usr/you/input, /usr/you/output/, /usr/you/error respectively
d) None

Ans. (a)

79. The redirection operators > and >>

a) do the same function
b) differ : > overwrites, while >> appends
c) differ : > is used for input while >> is used for output
d) differ : > write to any file while >> write only to standard output
e) None of these

Ans. (b)

80. The command grep first second third /usr/you/myfile

a) prints lines containing the words first, second or third from the file /usr/you/myfile
b) searches for lines containing the pattern first in the files
second, third, and /usr/you/myfile and prints them
c) searches the files /usr/you/myfiel and third for lines containing the words first or second and prints them
d) replaces the word first with the word second in the files third and /usr/you/myfile
e) None of the above

Ans. (b)

81. You are creating a Index on EMPNO column in the EMPLOYEE table. Which statement will you use?
a) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx ON employee, empno;
b) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx FOR employee, empno;
c) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx ON employee(empno);
d) CREATE emp_empno_idx INdEX ON employee(empno);

Ans. c


82. Which program construct must return a value?
a) Package
b) Function
c) Anonymous block
d) Stored Procedure
e) Application Procedure

Ans. b


83. Which Statement would you use to remove the EMPLOYEE_Id_PK PRIMARY KEY constraint and all depending constraints fromthe EMPLOYEE table?
a) ALTER TABLE employee dROP PRIMARY KEY CASCAdE;
b) ALTER TABLE employee dELETE PRIMARY KEY CASCAdE;
c) MOdIFY TABLE employee dROP CONSTRAINT employee_id_pk CASCAdE;
d) ALTER TABLE employee dROP PRIMARY KEY employee_id_pk CASCAdE;
e) MOdIFY TABLE employee dELETE PRIMARY KEY employee_id_pk CASCAdE;

Ans. a


84. Which three commands cause a transaction to end? (Chosse three)
a) ALTER
b) GRANT
c) DELETE
d) INSERT
e) UPdATE
f) ROLLBACK

Ans. a ,b ,f

85. Under which circumstance should you create an index on a table?
a) The table is small.
b) The table is updated frequently.
c) A columns values are static and contain a narrow range of values
d) Two columns are consistently used in the WHERE clause join condition of SELECT
statements.

Ans.d

86. What was the first name given to Java Programming Language.

a) Oak - Java
b) Small Talk
c) Oak
d) None

Ans.a



87.When a bicycle is in motion,the force of friction exerted by the ground on the two wheels is such that it acts

(a) In the backward direction on the front wheel and in the forward direction on the rear wheel.
(b) In the forward direction on the front wheel and in the backward direction on the rear wheel.
(c) In the backward direction on both the front and rear wheels.
(d) In the backward direction on both the front and rear wheels.

Ans. (d)


88. A certain radioactive element A, has a half life = t seconds.
In (t/2) seconds the fraction of the initial quantity of the element so far decayed is nearly

(a) 29%
(b) 15%
(c) 10%
(d) 45%

Ans. (a)


89. Which of the following plots would be a straight line ?

(a) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of time
(b) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of number of decaying nuclei
(c) Decay rate against time
(d) Number of decaying nuclei against time

Ans. (b)


90. A radioactive element x has an atomic number of 100.
It decays directly into an element y which decays directly into element z.
In both processes a charged particle is emitted.
Which of the following statements would be true?

(a) y has an atomic number of 102
(b) y has an atomic number of 101
(c) z has an atomic number of 100
(d) z has an atomic number of 101

Ans. (b)


91. If the sum of the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c=0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals
then a/c, b/a, c/b are in

(a) AP
(b) GP
(c) HP
(d) None of these

Ans. (c)


92. A man speaks the truth 3 out of 4 times.
He throws a die and reports it to be a 6.
What is the probability of it being a 6?

(a) 3/8
(b) 5/8
(c) 3/4
(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)


93. If cos2A + cos2B + cos2C = 1 then ABC is a

(a) Right angle triangle
(b) Equilateral triangle
(c) All the angles are acute
(d) None of these

Ans. (a)


94. Image of point (3,8) in the line x + 3y = 7 is

(a) (-1,-4)
(b) (-1,4)
(c) (2,-4)
(d) (-2,-4)

Ans. (a)





95. The mass number of a nucleus is

(a) Always less than its atomic number
(b) Always more than its atomic number
(c) Sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number
(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)


96. The maximum KE of the photoelectron emitted from a surface is dependent on

(a) The intensity of incident radiation
(b) The potential of the collector electrode
(c) The frequency of incident radiation
(d) The angle of incidence of radiation of the surface

Ans. (c)


97. Which of the following is not an essential condition for interference

(a) The two interfering waves must be propagated in almost the same direction or
the two interfering waves must intersect at a very small angle
(b) The waves must have the same time period and wavelength
(c) Amplitude of the two waves should be the same
(d) The interfering beams of light must originate from the same source

Ans. (c)


98. When X-Ray photons collide with electrons

(a) They slow down
(b) Their mass increases
(c) Their wave length increases
(d) Their energy decreases

Ans. (c)








99. An electron emits energy

(a) Because its in orbit
(b) When it jumps from one energy level to another
(c) Electrons are attracted towards the nucleus
(d) The electrostatic force is insufficient to hold the electrons in orbits

Ans. (b)


100. How many bonds are present in CO2 molecule?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 4

Ans. (d)

Web Technology Concepts

What is HTTP? Explain its working?

What is DNS?

Why do I need a domain name like 'www.aucse.Com'?

What happens when I type in some url and press enter?

How does CGI work? Can I use 'C' language to write a CGI?

Working of Proxy Server, Cookies, types of cookies?

What is Firewall?

How to redirect to another page?

Some questions on web servers.

What is DOM?

Connection Pooling in IIS 3.0 and 4.0

What is Code Base, Style Sheets?

Need for CSS

DHTML: Difference between FontSize and Font Size?

Layers in TCP/IP

Some sites work with "http://sitename.com" but for some sites we need to specify "www" - like "http://www.sitename.com". Why?

Explain "URL Encoding",HTML "entity", GET method, POST method

If we force XML for web design, the browzer size will reduce. How?

How does DTD work?

Difference between ASP and DHTML?

How to create virtual directory in IIS?

Can I host muliple sites on same machine?

Administration of IIS.

Some questions on ODBC and internet.

XML and propritory databbases.

Working of ping, telnet, gopher.

Some questions about cross-browzer compatibility.

Visual Basic Interview Questions-Part 3

Does VB/Win make standalone .EXE files?

What is the current version of Visual Basic for Windows? [++]

Where can I get updated VB and other Microsoft files?

Where can I get good up-to-date information about VB? [++]

Are there any examples of commercial applications built using Visual Basic?

What's the difference between MODAL and MODELESS forms? [++]

When/Why should I use Option Explicit?

Why does everybody say I should save in TEXT not BINARY?

Is the Variant type slower than using other variable types?

How do I make a text box not beep but do something else when I hit the Enter key?

How do I implement an incremental search in list/dir/combo/file boxes?

How do I get the Tab key to be treated like a normal character?

How do I make an animated icon for my program?

What is passing by reference?

I get a "file not found" error on the IIF function when I distribute by program. Why?

Is there any way to pass a variable to a form apart from using global variables?

How should dates be implemented so they work with other language and country formats?

Can a VB application be an OLE server?

How do I dial a phone number without using the MSCOMM VBX?

I have [several] megabytes of memory. Why do I get an "out of memory" error? [++]

How do I mimic a toggle button? [++]

How do I get my application on top?

Is there a way to break long lines in VB code?

How do I remove/change the picture property of a control at design time?

Is a [foo] VBX/DLL available as shareware/freeware?

How do I make my applications screen-resolution independent?

How do I do Peek and Poke and other low-level stuff? [++]

Why doesn't "my string" & Chr$(13) do what I want?

How do I prevent multiple instances of my program?

How do I implement an accelerator key for a text box?

How do I force a file dialogue box to reread the currect disk?

How do I get the number of free bytes on a disk? [++]

Data Control missing from toolbox when I use VB under NT 3.5. Why?

How do I tell when an application executed using the SHELL command is finished?

How do I access C style strings?

How can I change the printer Windows uses in code without using the print common dialog? How
can I change orientation?

How do I speed up control property access?

How much gain in performance will I get if I write my number crunching routines in C instead of Visual Basic?

How do you make a TEXTBOX read only? Or, how do I prevent the user from changing the text in a TEXTBOX?

How can I create a VBX?

How do you change the system menu (on the Control-Menu Box)?

How do I play MID, WAV or other multimedia files?

How can I call a 'hidden' DOS program from VB?

How do I do drag & drop between applications?

How do I use GetPrivateProfileString to read from INI files?

How do I implement Undo?

How do I create a window with a small title bar as in a floating toolbar?

What is Pseudocode?

Does VB support pointers to functions?

How do I program the Novell NetWare API from VB?

How do you change the icon and otherwise manipulate the DOS box?

How do I make the mouse cursor invisible/visible?

How do I create controls dynamically (at run-time)?

How do I set the Windows wallpaper at runtime?

How do I call help files from a VB program? [**]

What is the Windows API?

How do I call a DLL?

What about DLL calls that require callbacks?

Why can't I use an index with my VB accessed database?

Is the Access Engine and Visual Basic Pro good enough for database work?

How do you avoid the "Invalid use of null" error when reading null values from a database?

What is "NULL"?

How can I access a record by record number?

How about Access 2.0 compatibility?

How come I get a "No Current Record" error when I use a a Data Control on an empty table?

How can I speed up my VB database application?

How do I get a bitmap picture in a field in an Access database?

What is "Reserved Error -1209"?

I'm getting error message "Reserved Error [-nnnn] ("There is no message for this error")" from Jet Engine 2.0.Why?

Why do I get "object not an array" when I try reference the fields of a global object variable which I have set to a table?

Visual Basic Interview Questions-Part 2

101. What is the use of ActiveX Documents?
102. What is ActiveX Document?
103. What is the use of Visual Basic Document file?
104. What is hyperlink?
105. How would you create Visual basic Document file?
106. What is Internet Explorer and its uses?
107. How would you navigate between one document to another document
in Internet Explorer ?
108. How would you run your ActiveX Document Dll?
109. How would you view html code in Active Server Pages?
110. How would you cre.ate your application in DHTML?
111. What is ActiveX Control?
112. Write the Steps in Creating an ActiveX Control?
113. How would you attach an ActiveX control in Your Application?
114. How would you create properties in ActiveX Control?
115. What is the-use of property page Wizard in ActiveX Control?
116. How would you add elements in TreevieW Control.
117. What are the types of line styles available in Treeview Control?
118. What is the use of Imagelist Controls
119. How would you attach pictures in Treeview Control?
120. What are the uses of List View Control?
121. Explain the types of Views in Listview Control.
122. How would you attach pictures in column headers of List View Control?
123. How would you add column headers in listview control?
124. How would you add elements and pictures to listitems in listview control?
125. How would you activate animation control?
126. What is the use of progress Bar Control?
127. How would you find out the value property in Slider Bar Control?
128. What is the use of Data Form Wizard?
129. How would you map properties to controls by using ActiveX Control Interface Wizard?
130. How would you convert a form into document?
131. How would you Create a Query Builder and Explain its uses
132. How would you create properties by using class Builder Wizard?
133. HTML stands for What? Use of HTML ?
134. Whether HTML supports multimedia: and document links?
135. DHTML Is used for what?
136. What do you mean by HTTP?
137. What is the use of Hyperlink control for DHTML applications?
138. How can you Navigate from the DHTML application to another DHTML application? .
139. What are the Internet tools available in VB6.0?
140. Explain the usage of Web Browser Control?
141. What do you mean by ADO?
142. What is the difference Between ADO and other data access objects0
143. WhatisOLEDB?
144. What are the important components of OLEDB?
145. Through which protocol OLEDB components are interfaced?
146. It possible to call OLEDB's Features directly in VB without using any control?
147. What type of databases you can access through AD I Data Access Object?
148. How many objects resides in ADO ?
.149. What is the use of Connection object?
150. Wat is the use of command Object?
151. Recordset object consists what?
152. What is the use of parameters collection?
153. Which type of object requires this object?
154. Is it possible to call backend procedures with ADO control?
155. Is there any Edit method in ADO Data Access method?
156. How can you check whether a record is valid record or Invalid record using ADO control or Object?
157. What do you mean by provider?
158. What type of recordsets are available in ADO?
159. Is it possible to call oracle database through ADO control or Object?
160. How many File System Controls are there ? Explain.
161. How can you filter out specific type of file using file system controls?
162. How can you get selected file from file system Control?
163. How many ways we can access file using VB?
164. Which method is preferred to save datas like database?
165. How to get freefile location in memory?
166. How to find size of the file. Which method or function is used to occomplish this?
167. Using which type we can access file line by line?
168. Which method is used to write context Into file?
169. How can you read content from file?
170. Binary Access-method isused to access file in which manner?
171. How can you check Beginning and End of the file?
172. What is the use of Scalewidth and ScaleHeight Proeperty?
173. What is the use of Active Control Property?
174. What are the types of Error?
175. In which areas the Error occurs?
176. What are the tools available for Debuggiu in VB?
177. What is the use of Immediate, Local Window?
178. What is the use of debug Window?
179. How can you Implement windows functionality in VB?
180. How many types of API functions are availble in VB?
181. How can you Add API functions to your Application?
182. How to get Cursor position using API?
183. Is it possible to change menu runtime using API? If yes? Specify the function names.
184. What are the types of API Types.

Visual Basic Interview Questions-Part 1

1. Which controls can not be placed in MDI ?
2. List out controls which does not have events
3. Which property of textbox cannot be changed at runtime. What is the max size of textbox?
4. How many system controls are available
5. ___,_____ and ____ container objects.
6. ___ Property is to compress a image in image control.
7. ___,___ and __ are difference between image and picture controls.
8. To.set the command button for ESC ___ Property has to be changed.
9. Is it possible to set a shortcut key for label.
10. What is the default property of datacontrol.
11.___,__,___ are the type of combo box?
12.__ no of controls in form.
13.OLE is used for _______
14.What is the need of tabindex property is label control.
15.___ is the control used to call a windows application.
16.Clear property is available in ____,___ control.
17.___ Property is used to count no. of items in a combobox.
18.___ is a property to resize a label control according to your caption.
19.Which controls have refresh method.
20.___ property is used to change to ___ value to access a identity column'in datacontrols.
21._____ is the property to ___,____,____ are valid for recordsource property of dat control.
22.To find the current recordposition in data control.
23.Timer control contains ________ no. of events.
24.____ property is used to lock a textbox to enter a datas.
25.What is the need of zorder method?
26.____ is the difference between Listindex and Tab index.
27.____ property of menu cannot be set at run time.
28.Can you create a tabletype of recordset in Jet - connected ODBC dbengine.
29.Difference between listbox and combo box.
30.What are the new events in textbox that has been included in VB6.0
31.Can you create a updatecascade, Deletecascade relation in Ms- Access? If no, give on eample.
32._____ collection in recordset used to assign a value from textbox to table columns without making
abinding in datacontrol.
33.____ argument can be used to make a menuitem into bold.
34. What is the difference between Msgbox Statement and MsgboxQ function?
35.What is.the difference between queryunload and unload in form?
36.___,___ arguments will be used to run a executable program in shell function
37.___ property used to add a menus at runtime.
38. What is the difference between modal and moduless window?
39.___ VB constant make the menu item in centre.
40.___ method used to move a recordset pointer in nth position in DAG.
41.To validate a range of values for a property whenever the property values changes,which type of property
procedure you use?
42. What are 3 main differences between flexgrid control and dbgrid control?
43.What is the difference between change event in normal combobox and dbcombobox?
44.To populate a single column value which dbcontrols you to use?
45.What is ODBC?
46.PartsofODBC?
47.WhatisDSN?
48.WhatisDAO?
49.Types of cursors in DAO?
50.Types of LockEdits in DAO? 51 .Types of Recordsets.
52.Difference between Tabletype and Snapshot?
53.Draw Sequence Modal of DAO? Explain.
54.Difference between Dynaset and Snapshot?
55.Difference between Recordset and Querydef?
56.What is the use of Tabledef?
57.Default cursor Type and LockEdit type in DAO?
58. What is the default workspace?
59.1s it posible to Create Tables Through Querydef?
60.It is possible to access Text (x.txt) files? Explain.
61. What is ODBC Direct and Microsoft Jet Database Engine ?
62. Is it possible to Manipulate data through flexgrid? Explain.
63.Types of DBCombo boxes
64.What do you mean by Databound Controls? Explain.
65.What is RDO?
66.Types of cursors in RDO.
67.Types of LockEdits in RDO.
68.Types of LockEdits in RDO.
69.Types of Resultsets.
70.Difference between Recordset and Resultsets.
71.Explain Default cursor Type and LockEdits type in RDO
72.Draw Sequence Modal of RDO? Explain.
73.What is meant by Establish Connection in RDO? 74.1s it possible to Access BackEnd procedures? Explain.
75.'What is OLE? Explain.
76.What is DDE?
77.Difference between Linked Object and Embedded Object?
78.Explain OLE Drag and Drop.
79.Difference between DDE and OLE.
80. What is the difference between Object and Class?
81.Give brief description about class?
82.Does VB Supports OOPS Concepts? Explain..
83.Difference between Class Module and Standard Module?
84.Explain Get, Let, Set Properties.
85.Difference Types of Procedures in VB?
86. What is the use of NEW Keyword? Explain.
87.What is constructors and distructors.
88.Types of Modal windows in VB.
89. What is ActiveX? Explain.
90.Types of ActiveX Components in VB?
91.Difference between ActiveX Control and Standard Control.
92.Difference between ActiveX Exe and Dll.
93.What is instantiating?
94. Advantage of ActiveX Dll over Active Exe.
95.Difference Types of Instancing Property in ActiveX Dll and Exe.
96.What is ActiveX Dll and ActiveX Exe?
97. Write the steps in Creating ActiveX Dll and Active Exe?
98.Explain the differences between ActiveX Dll and ActiveX Exe?
99.How would you use ActiveX Dll and ActiveX Exe in your application?
100. How would you access objects created in ActiveX Exe and ActiveX D1T

Networking Interview Questions- Part I

What is the difference between TFTP and FTP application layer protocols?
The Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) allows a local host to obtain files from a remote host but does not provide reliability or security. It uses the fundamental packet delivery services offered by UDP.
The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is the standard mechanism provided by TCP / IP for copying a file from one host to another. It uses the services offer by TCP and so is reliable and secure. It establishes two connections (virtual circuits) between the hosts, one for data transfer and another for control information.

What are major types of networks and explain?
Server-based network
Peer-to-peer network

Peer-to-peer network, computers can act as both servers sharing resources and as clients using the resources.
Server-based networks provide centralized control of network resources and rely on server computers to provide security and network administration

What are the important topologies for networks?
BUS topology:
In this each computer is directly connected to primary network cable in a single line.
Advantages:
Inexpensive, easy to install, simple to understand, easy to extend.

STAR topology:
In this all computers are connected using a central hub.
Advantages:
Can be inexpensive, easy to install and reconfigure and easy to trouble shoot physical problems.

RING topology:
In this all computers are connected in loop.
Advantages:
All computers have equal access to network media, installation can be simple, and signal does not degrade as much as in other topologies because each computer regenerates it.

What is mesh network?
A network in which there are multiple network links between computers to provide multiple paths for data to travel.

What is difference between baseband and broadband transmission?
In a baseband transmission, the entire bandwidth of the cable is consumed by a single signal. In broadband transmission, signals are sent on multiple frequencies, allowing multiple signals to be sent simultaneously.

Explain 5-4-3 rule?
In a Ethernet network, between any two points on the network ,there can be no more than five network segments or four repeaters, and of those five segments only three of segments can be populated.

What MAU?
In token Ring , hub is called Multistation Access Unit(MAU).

What is the difference between routable and non- routable protocols?
Routable protocols can work with a router and can be used to build large networks. Non-Routable protocols are designed to work on small, local networks and cannot be used with a router

Why should you care about the OSI Reference Model?
It provides a framework for discussing network operations and design.

What is logical link control?
One of two sublayers of the data link layer of OSI reference model, as defined by the IEEE 802 standard. This sublayer is responsible for maintaining the link between computers when they are sending data across the physical network connection.

What is virtual channel?
Virtual channel is normally a connection from one source to one destination, although multicast connections are also permitted. The other name for virtual channel is virtual circuit.

What is virtual path?
Along any transmission path from a given source to a given destination, a group of virtual circuits can be grouped together into what is called path.

What is packet filter?
Packet filter is a standard router equipped with some extra functionality. The extra functionality allows every incoming or outgoing packet to be inspected. Packets meeting some criterion are forwarded normally. Those that fail the test are dropped.

What is traffic shaping?
One of the main causes of congestion is that traffic is often busy. If hosts could be made to transmit at a uniform rate, congestion would be less common. Another open loop method to help manage congestion is forcing the packet to be transmitted at a more predictable rate. This is called traffic shaping.

What is multicast routing?
Sending a message to a group is called multicasting, and its routing algorithm is called multicast routing.

What is region?
When hierarchical routing is used, the routers are divided into what we will call regions, with each router knowing all the details about how to route packets to destinations within its own region, but knowing nothing about the internal structure of other regions.

What is silly window syndrome?
It is a problem that can ruin TCP performance. This problem occurs when data are passed to the sending TCP entity in large blocks, but an interactive application on the receiving side reads 1 byte at a time.

What are Digrams and Trigrams?
The most common two letter combinations are called as digrams. e.g. th, in, er, re and an. The most common three letter combinations are called as trigrams. e.g. the, ing, and, and ion.

Expand IDEA.
IDEA stands for International Data Encryption Algorithm.

What is wide-mouth frog?
Wide-mouth frog is the simplest known key distribution center (KDC) authentication protocol.

What is Mail Gateway?
It is a system that performs a protocol translation between different electronic mail delivery protocols.

What is IGP (Interior Gateway Protocol)?
It is any routing protocol used within an autonomous system.

What is EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol)?
It is the protocol the routers in neighboring autonomous systems use to identify the set of networks that can be reached within or via each autonomous system.

What is autonomous system?
It is a collection of routers under the control of a single administrative authority and that uses a common Interior Gateway Protocol.

What is BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)?
It is a protocol used to advertise the set of networks that can be reached with in an autonomous system. BGP enables this information to be shared with the autonomous system. This is newer than EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol).

What is Gateway-to-Gateway protocol?
It is a protocol formerly used to exchange routing information between Internet core routers.

What is NVT (Network Virtual Terminal)?
It is a set of rules defining a very simple virtual terminal interaction. The NVT is used in the start of a Telnet session.

What is a Multi-homed Host?
It is a host that has a multiple network interfaces and that requires multiple IP addresses is called as a Multi-homed Host.

What is Kerberos?
It is an authentication service developed at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology. Kerberos uses encryption to prevent intruders from discovering passwords and gaining unauthorized access to files.

What is OSPF?
It is an Internet routing protocol that scales well, can route traffic along multiple paths, and uses knowledge of an Internet's topology to make accurate routing decisions.

What is Proxy ARP?
It is using a router to answer ARP requests. This will be done when the originating host believes that a destination is local, when in fact is lies beyond router.

What is SLIP (Serial Line Interface Protocol)?
It is a very simple protocol used for transmission of IP datagrams across a serial line.

What is RIP (Routing Information Protocol)?
It is a simple protocol used to exchange information between the routers.

What is source route?
It is a sequence of IP addresses identifying the route a datagram must follow. A source route may optionally be included in an IP datagram header.

Networking Interview Questions

What are the two types of transmission technology available?
(i) Broadcast and (ii) point-to-point

What is subnet?
A generic term for section of a large networks usually separated by a bridge or router.

Difference between the communication and transmission.
Transmission is a physical movement of information and concern issues like bit polarity, synchronisation, clock etc.
Communication means the meaning full exchange of information between two communication media.

What are the possible ways of data exchange?
(i) Simplex (ii) Half-duplex (iii) Full-duplex.

What is SAP?
Series of interface points that allow other computers to communicate with the other layers of network protocol stack.

What do you meant by "triple X" in Networks?
The function of PAD (Packet Assembler Disassembler) is described in a document known as X.3. The standard protocol has been defined between the terminal and the PAD, called X.28; another standard protocol exists between hte PAD and the network, called X.29. Together, these three recommendations are often called "triple X"

What is frame relay, in which layer it comes?
Frame relay is a packet switching technology. It will operate in the data link layer.

What is terminal emulation, in which layer it comes?
Telnet is also called as terminal emulation. It belongs to application layer.

What is Beaconing?
The process that allows a network to self-repair networks problems. The stations on the network notify the other stations on the ring when they are not receiving the transmissions. Beaconing is used in Token ring and FDDI networks.

What is redirector?
Redirector is software that intercepts file or prints I/O requests and translates them into network requests. This comes under presentation layer.

What is NETBIOS and NETBEUI?
NETBIOS is a programming interface that allows I/O requests to be sent to and received from a remote computer and it hides the networking hardware from applications.
NETBEUI is NetBIOS extended user interface. A transport protocol designed by microsoft and IBM for the use on small subnets.

What is RAID?
A method for providing fault tolerance by using multiple hard disk drives.

What is passive topology?
When the computers on the network simply listen and receive the signal, they are referred to as passive because they don’t amplify the signal in any way. Example for passive topology - linear bus.

What is Brouter?
Hybrid devices that combine the features of both bridges and routers.

What is cladding?
A layer of a glass surrounding the center fiber of glass inside a fiber-optic cable.

What is point-to-point protocol
A communications protocol used to connect computers to remote networking services including Internet service providers.

How Gateway is different from Routers?
A gateway operates at the upper levels of the OSI model and translates information between two completely different network architectures or data formats

What is attenuation?
The degeneration of a signal over distance on a network cable is called attenuation.

What is MAC address?
The address for a device as it is identified at the Media Access Control (MAC) layer in the network architecture. MAC address is usually stored in ROM on the network adapter card and is unique.

Difference between bit rate and baud rate.
Bit rate is the number of bits transmitted during one second whereas baud rate refers to the number of signal units per second that are required to represent those bits.
baud rate = bit rate / N
where N is no-of-bits represented by each signal shift.

What is Bandwidth?
Every line has an upper limit and a lower limit on the frequency of signals it can carry. This limited range is called the bandwidth.

What are the types of Transmission media?
Signals are usually transmitted over some transmission media that are broadly classified in to two categories.
Guided Media:
These are those that provide a conduit from one device to another that include twisted-pair, coaxial cable and fiber-optic cable. A signal traveling along any of these media is directed and is contained by the physical limits of the medium. Twisted-pair and coaxial cable use metallic that accept and transport signals in the form of electrical current. Optical fiber is a glass or plastic cable that accepts and transports signals in the form of light.
Unguided Media:
This is the wireless media that transport electromagnetic waves without using a physical conductor. Signals are broadcast either through air. This is done through radio communication, satellite communication and cellular telephony.

What is Project 802?
It is a project started by IEEE to set standards to enable intercommunication between equipment from a variety of manufacturers. It is a way for specifying functions of the physical layer, the data link layer and to some extent the network layer to allow for interconnectivity of major LAN
protocols.
It consists of the following:
802.1 is an internetworking standard for compatibility of different LANs and MANs across protocols.
802.2 Logical link control (LLC) is the upper sublayer of the data link layer which is non-architecture-specific, that is remains the same for all IEEE-defined LANs.
Media access control (MAC) is the lower sublayer of the data link layer that contains some distinct modules each carrying proprietary information specific to the LAN product being used. The modules are Ethernet LAN (802.3), Token ring LAN (802.4), Token bus LAN (802.5).
802.6 is distributed queue dual bus (DQDB) designed to be used in MANs.

What is Protocol Data Unit?
The data unit in the LLC level is called the protocol data unit (PDU). The PDU contains of four fields a destination service access point (DSAP), a source service access point (SSAP), a control field and an information field. DSAP, SSAP are addresses used by the LLC to identify the protocol stacks on the receiving and sending machines that are generating and using the data. The control field specifies whether the PDU frame is a information frame (I - frame) or a supervisory frame (S - frame) or a unnumbered frame (U - frame).

What are the different type of networking / internetworking devices?
Repeater:
Also called a regenerator, it is an electronic device that operates only at physical layer. It receives the signal in the network before it becomes weak, regenerates the original bit pattern and puts the refreshed copy back in to the link.
Bridges:
These operate both in the physical and data link layers of LANs of same type. They divide a larger network in to smaller segments. They contain logic that allow them to keep the traffic for each segment separate and thus are repeaters that relay a frame only the side of the segment containing the intended recipent and control congestion.
Routers:
They relay packets among multiple interconnected networks (i.e. LANs of different type). They operate in the physical, data link and network layers. They contain software that enable them to determine which of the several possible paths is the best for a particular transmission.
Gateways:
They relay packets among networks that have different protocols (e.g. between a LAN and a WAN). They accept a packet formatted for one protocol and convert it to a packet formatted for another protocol before forwarding it. They operate in all seven layers of the OSI model.

What is ICMP?
ICMP is Internet Control Message Protocol, a network layer protocol of the TCP/IP suite used by hosts and gateways to send notification of datagram problems back to the sender. It uses the echo test / reply to test whether a destination is reachable and responding. It also handles both control and error messages.

What are the data units at different layers of the TCP / IP protocol suite?
The data unit created at the application layer is called a message, at the transport layer the data unit created is called either a segment or an user datagram, at the network layer the data unit created is called the datagram, at the data link layer the datagram is encapsulated in to a frame and finally transmitted as signals along the transmission media.

What is difference between ARP and RARP?
The address resolution protocol (ARP) is used to associate the 32 bit IP address with the 48 bit physical address, used by a host or a router to find the physical address of another host on its network by sending a ARP query packet that includes the IP address of the receiver.
The reverse address resolution protocol (RARP) allows a host to discover its Internet address when it knows only its physical address.

What is the minimum and maximum length of the header in the TCP segment and IP datagram?
The header should have a minimum length of 20 bytes and can have a maximum length of 60 bytes.

What is the range of addresses in the classes of internet addresses?
Class A 0.0.0.0 - 127.255.255.255
Class B 128.0.0.0 - 191.255.255.255
Class C 192.0.0.0 - 223.255.255.255
Class D 224.0.0.0 - 239.255.255.255
Class E 240.0.0.0 - 247.255.255.255